**A** few days ago, I answered a self-study question on Cross Validated about the convergence in probability of 1/X given the convergence in probability of X to a. Until I ran out of explanations… I did not see how to detail any further the connection between both properties! The reader (OP) started from a resolution of the corresponding exercise in Casella and Berger’s Statistical Inference and could not follow the steps, some of which were incorrect. But my attempts at making him uncover the necessary steps failed, presumably because he was sticking to this earlier resolution rather than starting from the definition of convergence in probability. And he could not get over the equality

which is the central reason why one convergence transfers to the other… I know I know nothing, and even less about pedagogy, but it is (just so mildly!) frustrating to hit a wall beyond which no further explanation can help! Feel free to propose an alternative resolution.

**Update:** A few days later, readers of Cross Validated pointed out that the question had been answered by whuber in a magisterial way. But I wonder if my original reader appreciated this resolution, since he did not pursue the issue.

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