Archive for mathematical statistics


Posted in Kids, Statistics, University life with tags , , , , , , , on February 7, 2018 by xi'an
As in every term, here comes the painful week of grading hundreds of exams! My mathematical statistics exam was highly traditional and did not even involve Bayesian material, as the few students who attended the lectures were so eager to discuss sufficiency and ancilarity, that I decided to spend an extra lecture on these notions rather than rushing though conjugate priors. Highly traditional indeed with an inverse Gaussian model and a few basic consequences of Basu’s theorem. actually exposed during this lecture. Plus mostly standard multiple choices about maximum likelihood estimation and R programming… Among the major trends this year, I spotted out the widespread use of strange derivatives of negative powers, the simultaneous derivation of two incompatible convergent estimates, the common mixup between the inverse of a sum and the sum of the inverses, the inability to produce the MLE of a constant transform of the parameter, the choice of estimators depending on the parameter, and a lack of concern for Fisher informations equal to zero.

best unbiased estimators

Posted in Books, Kids, pictures, Statistics, University life with tags , , , , , , , , , , , , on January 18, 2018 by xi'an

A question that came out on X validated today kept me busy for most of the day! It relates to an earlier question on the best unbiased nature of a maximum likelihood estimator, to which I pointed out the simple case of the Normal variance when the estimate is not unbiased (but improves the mean square error). Here, the question is whether or not the maximum likelihood estimator of a location parameter, when corrected from its bias, is the best unbiased estimator (in the sense of the minimal variance). The question is quite interesting in that it links to the mathematical statistics of the 1950’s, of Charles Stein, Erich Lehmann, Henry Scheffé, and Debabrata Basu. For instance, if there exists a complete sufficient statistic for the problem, then there exists a best unbiased estimator of the location parameter, by virtue of the Lehmann-Scheffé theorem (it is also a consequence of Basu’s theorem). And the existence is pretty limited in that outside the two exponential families with location parameter, there is no other distribution meeting this condition, I believe. However, even if there is no complete sufficient statistic, there may still exist best unbiased estimators, as shown by Bondesson. But Lehmann and Scheffé in their magisterial 1950 Sankhya paper exhibit a counter-example, namely the U(θ-1,θ-1) distribution:

since no non-constant function of θ allows for a best unbiased estimator.

Looking in particular at the location parameter of a Cauchy distribution, I realised that the Pitman best equivariant estimator is unbiased as well [for all location problems] and hence dominates the (equivariant) maximum likelihood estimator which is unbiased in this symmetric case. However, as detailed in a nice paper of Gabriela Freue on this problem, I further discovered that there is no uniformly minimal variance estimator and no uniformly minimal variance unbiased estimator! (And that the Pitman estimator enjoys a closed form expression, as opposed to the maximum likelihood estimator.) This sounds a bit paradoxical but simply means that there exists different unbiased estimators which variance functions are not ordered and hence not comparable. Between them and with the variance of the Pitman estimator.

Darmois, Koopman, and Pitman

Posted in Books, Statistics with tags , , , , , , , , on November 15, 2017 by xi'an

When [X’ed] seeking a simple proof of the Pitman-Koopman-Darmois lemma [that exponential families are the only types of distributions with constant support allowing for a fixed dimension sufficient statistic], I came across a 1962 Stanford technical report by Don Fraser containing a short proof of the result. Proof that I do not fully understand as it relies on the notion that the likelihood function itself is a minimal sufficient statistic.

done! [#1]

Posted in Kids, pictures, University life with tags , , , , , , on January 16, 2016 by xi'an

After spending a few hours grading my 127 exams for most nights of this week, I am finally done with it! One of the exam questions was the simulation of XY when (X,Y) is a bivariate normal vector with correlation ρ, following the trick described in a X validated question asked a few months ago, namely that


but no one managed to establish this representation. And, as usual, some students got confused between parameters θ and observations x when writing a posterior density, since the density of the prior was defined in the exam with the dummy x, thereby recovering the prior as the posterior. Nothing terrible and nothing exceptional with this cohort of undergraduates. And now I still have to go through my second pile of exams for the graduate course I taught on Bayesian computational tools…

minimaxity of a Bayes estimator

Posted in Books, Kids, Statistics, University life with tags , , , , , on February 2, 2015 by xi'an

Today, while in Warwick, I spotted on Cross Validated a question involving “minimax” in the title and hence could not help but look at it! The way I first understood the question (and immediately replied to it) was to check whether or not the standard Normal average—reduced to the single Normal observation by sufficiency considerations—is a minimax estimator of the normal mean under an interval zero-one loss defined by

\mathcal{L}(\mu,\hat{\mu})=\mathbb{I}_{|\mu-\hat\mu|>L}=\begin{cases}1 &\text{if }|\mu-\hat\mu|>L\\ 0&\text{if }|\mu-\hat{\mu}|\le L\\ \end{cases}

where L is a positive tolerance bound. I had not seen this problem before, even though it sounds quite standard. In this setting, the identity estimator, i.e., the normal observation x, is indeed minimax as (a) it is a generalised Bayes estimator—Bayes estimators under this loss are given by the centre of an equal posterior interval—for this loss function under the constant prior and (b) it can be shown to be a limit of proper Bayes estimators and its Bayes risk is also the limit of the corresponding Bayes risks. (This is a most traditional way of establishing minimaxity for a generalised Bayes estimator.) However, this was not the question asked on the forum, as the book by Zacks it referred to stated that the standard Normal average maximised the minimal coverage, which amounts to the maximal risk under the above loss. With the strange inversion of parameter and estimator in the minimax risk:

\sup_\mu\inf_{\hat\mu} R(\mu,\hat{\mu})\text{ instead of } \sup_\mu\inf_{\hat\mu} R(\mu,\hat{\mu})

which makes the first bound equal to 0 by equating estimator and mean μ. Note however that I cannot access the whole book and hence may miss some restriction or other subtlety that would explain for this unusual definition. (As an aside, note that Cross Validated has a protection against serial upvoting, So voting up or down at once a large chunk of my answers on that site does not impact my “reputation”!)

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