Archive for Poisson approximation

hard birthday problem

Posted in Books, Kids, R, Statistics with tags , , , , , , , , , on February 4, 2021 by xi'an

Click to access birthday.pdf

From an X validated question, found that WordPress now allows for direct link to pdf documents, like the above paper by my old friend Anirban Das Gupta! The question is about estimating a number M of individuals with N distinct birth dates over a year of T days. After looking around I could not find a simpler representation of the probability for N=r other than (1) in my answer,

\frac{T!}{(\bar N-r)!}\frac{m!}{T^m}  \sum_{(r_1,\ldots,r_m);\\\sum_1^m r_i=r\ \&\\\sum_1^m ir_i=m}1\Big/\prod_{j=1}^m r_j! (j!)^{r_j}

borrowed from a paper by Fisher et al. (Another Fisher!) Checking Feller leads to the probability (p.102)

{T \choose r}\sum_{\nu=0}^r (-1)^{\nu}{r\choose\nu}\left(1-\frac{T-r+\nu}T \right)^m

which fits rather nicely simulation frequencies, as shown using

apply(!apply(matrix(sample(1:Nb,T*M,rep=TRUE),T,M),1,duplicated),2,sum)

Further, Feller (1970, pp.103-104) justifies an asymptotic Poisson approximation with parameter$

\lambda(M)=\bar{N}\exp\{-M/\bar N\}

from which an estimate of $M$ can be derived. With the birthday problem as illustration (pp.105-106)!

It may be that a completion from N to (R¹,R²,…) where the components are the number of days with one birthdate, two birthdates, &tc. could help design an EM algorithm that would remove the summation in (1) but I did not spend more time on the problem (than finding a SAS approximation to the probability!).

flea circus

Posted in Books, Kids, pictures, R, Statistics with tags , , , , , , , , , , , on December 8, 2016 by xi'an

gribAn old riddle found on X validated asking for Monte Carlo resolution  but originally given on Project Euler:

A 30×30 grid of squares contains 30² fleas, initially one flea per square. When a bell is rung, each flea jumps to an adjacent square at random. What is the expected number of unoccupied squares after 50 bell rings, up to six decimal places?

The debate on X validated is whether or not a Monte Carlo resolution is feasible. Up to six decimals, certainly not. But with some lower precision, certainly. Here is a rather basic R code where the 50 steps are operated on the 900 squares, rather than the 900 fleas. This saves some time by avoiding empty squares.

xprmt=function(n=10,T=50){

 mean=0
 for (t in 1:n){

   board=rep(1,900)
   for (v in 1:T){

    beard=rep(0,900)
    if (board[1]>0){
      poz=c(0,1,0,30)
      ne=rmultinom(1,board[1],prob=(poz!=0))
      beard[1+poz]=beard[1+poz]+ne}
    #
    for (i in (2:899)[board[-1][-899]>0]){
     u=(i-1)%%30+1;v=(i-1)%/%30+1
     poz=c(-(u>1),(u<30),-30*(v>1),30*(v<30))      
     ne=rmultinom(1,board[i],prob=(poz!=0))      
     beard[i+poz]=beard[i+poz]+ne} 
    #     
    if (board[900]>0){
     poz=c(-1,0,-30,0)
     ne=rmultinom(1,board[900],prob=(poz!=0))
     beard[900+poz]=beard[900+poz]+ne}
     board=beard}
   mean=mean+sum(board==0)}
 return(mean/n)}

The function returns an empirical average over n replications. With a presumably awkward approach to the borderline squares, since it involves adding zeros to keep the structure the same… Nonetheless, it produces an approximation that is rather close to the approximate expected value, in about 3mn on my laptop.

> exprmt(n=1e3)
[1] 331.082
> 900/exp(1)
[1] 331.0915

Further gains follow from considering only half of the squares, as there are two independent processes acting in parallel. I looked at an alternative and much faster approach using the stationary distribution, with the stationary being the Multinomial (450,(2/1740,3/1740…,4/1740,…,2/1740)) with probabilities proportional to 2 in the corner, 3 on the sides, and 4 in the inside. (The process, strictly speaking, has no stationary distribution, since it is periodic. But one can consider instead the subprocess indexed by even times.) This seems to be the case, though, when looking at the occupancy frequencies, after defining the stationary as:

inva=function(B=30){
return(c(2,rep(3,B-2),2,rep(c(3,
  rep(4,B-2),3),B-2),2,rep(3,B-2),2))}

namely

> mn=0;n=1e8 #14 clock hours!
> proz=rep(c(rep(c(0,1),15),rep(c(1,0),15)),15)*inva(30)
> for (t in 1:n)
+ mn=mn+table(rmultinom(1,450,prob=rep(1,450)))[1:4]
> mn=mn/n
> mn[1]=mn[1]-450
> mn
     0      1      2     3
166.11 164.92  82.56 27.71
> exprmt(n=1e6) #55 clock hours!!
[1] 165.36 165.69 82.92 27.57

my original confusion being that the Poisson approximation had not yet taken over… (Of course, computing the first frequency for the stationary distribution does not require any simulation, since it is the sum of the complement probabilities to the power 450, i.e., 166.1069.)